The Gemara responds: The verse serves to exclude a man from contracting ritual impurity due to red semen.

The Gemara objects: But what about that which is taught in a baraita with regard to a woman who experiences a discharge of uterine blood after her menstrual period [zava]: The verse states: “And if a woman has an issue of her blood many days” (Leviticus 15:25). From the word “woman” I have derived only that ziva applies to an adult woman. From where do I derive that a ten-day-old girl is included in the halakhot of ziva? The verse states: “And if a woman.” Why do I need the verse? Let one derive that a ten-day-old girl is included in the halakhot of ziva from the fact that a one-day-old girl is included in the halakhot of a menstruating woman, as a woman may become a zava only after seven days of menstruation and three subsequent days of experiencing uterine discharge.

The Gemara responds: It was necessary for the verse to teach that the halakhot of ziva apply to a ten-day-old girl. As, if the Merciful One had written only that a one-day-old girl is included in the halakhot of a menstruating woman, I would say: The halakhot of a menstruating woman apply to a one-day-old girl because of their stringency, as when a woman sees blood on only one day she is required to sit for the seven days of menstruation. But with regard to a zava, since the halakha is that if a woman sees blood on only one day she has the status of a lesser zava, and it is enough for her to observe a clean day for a day she experiences a discharge, one might say that the halakhot of ziva do not apply to a ten-day-old girl. It was therefore necessary for the verse to indicate otherwise.

The Gemara objects: And let the Merciful One write that a ten-day-old girl is included in the halakhot of a zava, and it would not be required to write that a one-day-old girl is included in the halakhot of a menstruating woman, and I would know that as a girl cannot become a zava without first assuming the status of a menstruating woman, she must also be included in the halakhot of a menstruating woman. The Gemara responds: Yes, it is indeed so; the fact that a one-day-old girl is included in the halakhot of a menstruating woman can be derived from the fact that a ten-day-old girl is included in the halakhot of a zava. Rather, why do I need the verse: “And if a woman,” that is stated with regard to a menstruating woman? The verse serves to exclude a man from contracting ritual impurity due to red semen.

The Gemara objects: But the Torah already excluded this case on another occasion, as stated earlier. The Gemara explains: One verse serves to exclude a man from contracting ritual impurity due to red semen, and one verse serves to exclude a man from being rendered a zav due to blood that emanates from his penis.

§ The Gemara discusses the halakha of ziva with regard to a male: And so with regard to males, the halakhot of a zav apply even to minor boys. As it is taught in a baraita: The verse states concerning a zav: “When any man has an issue out of his flesh, his issue is impure” (Leviticus 15:2). What is the meaning when the verse states “any man”? The verse serves to include a one-day-old baby, teaching that even he is susceptible to impurity of ziva. This is the statement of Rabbi Yehuda.

Rabbi Yishmael, son of Rabbi Yoḥanan ben Beroka, says: This derivation is not necessary, as the verse states: “And of them that have an issue, whether it be a male or a female” (Leviticus 15:33). “Whether it be a male” includes anyone who is a male, whether he is an adult or whether he is a minor; “or a female” includes anyone who is a female, whether she is an adult or whether she is a minor. If so, what is the meaning when the verse states “any man”? The Torah spoke in the language of people, and one is not meant to derive anything from this verse.

The Gemara asks: Apparently, when the verse includes a minor boy it includes even a one-day-old. But raise a contradiction from another baraita, which addresses the verse: “And if the flow of seed go out from a man, then he shall bathe all his flesh in water and be impure until the evening” (Leviticus 15:16). From the word “man” I have derived only that a man is rendered ritually impure through a seminal emission. From where do I derive that the seminal emission of a boy aged nine years and one day renders him impure as well? The verse states: “And a man.” Evidently, the verse does not include a one-day-old boy.

Rava said: These are halakhot transmitted to Moses from Sinai, and the Sages merely supported them with verses. Therefore, there is no contradiction. The Gemara asks: Which is a halakha transmitted to Moses from Sinai, and which halakha is derived from a verse? If we say that the halakha that a one-day-old boy is included in the halakhot of a zav is a halakha transmitted to Moses from Sinai, and the halakha that the seminal emission of a boy aged nine years and one day renders him impure is derived from a verse, then one may object: But the verse is written in an unspecified manner; consequently, even a one-day-old boy should be included in the verse.

Rather, the halakha with regard to the seminal emission of a boy aged nine years and one day is a halakha transmitted to Moses from Sinai, and the halakha that a one-day-old boy is included in the halakhot of a zav is derived from a verse. The Gemara asks: And now that the halakha with regard to the seminal emission of a boy aged nine years and one day renders is a halakha transmitted to Moses from Sinai, why do I need a verse? The Gemara answers: The verse serves to exclude a woman from contracting the impurity of a zava due to a white discharge.

The Gemara asks: Why do I need for the Merciful One to write that a one-day-old is included in the halakhot of ziva with regard to males, and why do I need for the Merciful One to write that a one-day-old is included in the halakhot of a menstruating woman and a ten-day-old is included in the halakhot of ziva with regard to females?

The Gemara answers that both verses are necessary. As, if the Merciful One had written only concerning males, one might say: A one-day-old boy is included in the halakhot of ziva because the halakha is more stringent with regard to males, as they are rendered impure through three sightings of ziva on one day just like through sightings on three consecutive days. But with regard to females, who are not rendered impure through three sightings on one day as they are through sightings on three consecutive days, one might say that the halakhot of ziva do not apply to ten-day-old girls.

And by contrast, if the Merciful One had written only with regard to females, one might say: The halakhot of ziva apply to ten-day-old girls, because of the fact that they are rendered impure even on account of sightings that occur due to circumstances beyond their control. But with regard to males, who are not rendered impure on account of sightings that occur due to circumstances beyond their control, one might say that one-day-old boys are not included in the halakhot of ziva. Therefore, both verses are necessary.

§ The mishna teaches: And the Samaritan men impart ritual impurity to the lower bedding like the upper bedding. The Gemara asks: What is the meaning of the clause: The lower bedding like the upper bedding? If we say it means that if there are ten mattresses stacked one upon the other and a Samaritan man sat upon them, the lowest mattress, like the upper mattresses, is rendered impure, this halakha is obvious, since he presses on all of them when he sits on them. In other words, since Samaritan men impart impurity to the bedding beneath them because they are considered men who engage in intercourse with menstruating women, there is no reason to distinguish between the lowest mattress and the other mattresses above it.

Rather, the mishna means that the status of the lowest mattress beneath a man who engages in intercourse with a menstruating woman is like that of the bedding above a zav, i.e., the bedding beneath a Samaritan man assumes first-degree ritual impurity and does not become a primary source of impurity like the bedding beneath a zav. That is, just as the upper bedding of a zav is not a primary source of impurity and imparts impurity only to food and drink but not people or vessels, so too, the bedding beneath a man who engages in intercourse with a menstruating woman imparts ritual impurity only to food and drink.

The Gemara asks: From where do we derive that the bedding above a zav imparts ritual impurity only to food and drink? As it is written with regard to a zav: “And whoever touches any thing that was under him shall be impure” (Leviticus 15:10). What is the meaning of the expression “under him”?