but you do not pass an inheritance from the father even in a case where there is a daughter, so that the father precedes the daughter in the order of inheritance? The Gemara answers: If so, the Merciful One would not write: “Then you shall pass the inheritance to his daughter” (Numbers 27:8). This indicates that the logical order of inheritance is being overridden, as the fact that the daughter precedes the brothers of the deceased is due to her being a closer relative of his. It is obvious that the Torah intends that she precede even the father.

Having quoted two derivations for the halakha that the father precedes the brothers, the Gemara proceeds to discuss them and asks: And according to the one who derives it from the term: “And you shall pass,” what does he do with this term: “His kinsman,” which was said to refer to the father? The Gemara answers: He requires it for that which is taught in a baraita: “His kinsman.” This is referring to his wife, and the Torah teaches that a husband inherits from his wife.

The Gemara asks: And according to the one who derives it from the term: “His kinsman,” what does he do with this term: “And you shall pass”? He requires it for that which is taught in a baraita, that Rabbi Yehuda HaNasi says: In the context of all of the relatives listed in the passage detailing the laws of inheritance, it is stated concerning them with the terminology of giving, and only here, in the context of daughters, it is stated concerning them with the terminology of passing. This teaches us that you have no one who passes an inheritance of land in Eretz Yisrael from one tribe to another except for a daughter, since her son and husband inherit from her.

§ The Gemara returns to discuss the interpretation of the term: “His kinsman” (Numbers 27:11). And from where does one know to derive that with regard to the term: “His kinsman [she’ero],” this is referring to the father, as it is written in the context of forbidden sexual relations: “She is your father’s kinswoman [she’er]” (Leviticus 18:12)? Perhaps one should say instead: “His kinswoman,” this is referring to the mother, as it is also written: “For she is your mother’s kinswoman [she’er]” (Leviticus 18:13).

Rava said in response that the verse states: “Then you shall give his inheritance to his kinsman who is next to him of his family, and he shall inherit it” (Numbers 27:11), emphasizing that “kinsman” is referring specifically to someone who is of his family, and it is the father’s family that is called one’s family, while one’s mother’s family is not called one’s family. Proof for this is found in another verse, as it is written: “By their families, by their fathers’ houses” (Numbers 1:2).

The Gemara raises a difficulty: And is one’s mother’s family indeed not called one’s family? But it is written in the episode of Micah forming an idol to be worshipped: “And there was a young man of Bethlehem in Judah of the family of Judah who was a Levite, and he sojourned there” (Judges 17:7). The Gemara explains the difficulty: This matter itself is difficult. You said: “Who was a Levite,” as apparently he came from the tribe of Levi, but the verse says: “Of the family of Judah,” so apparently he came from the tribe of Judah. Rather, is it not that his father was from the tribe of Levi and his mother was from the tribe of Judah, and yet the verse says that he was: “Of the family of Judah”? This appears to prove that one’s mother’s family is also called his family.

Rava bar Rav Ḥanan said in response: No, the verse speaks of a man whose name was Levi, but his father was of the tribe of Judah. The Gemara asks: If that is so, how is that which Micah said when that man agreed to serve as his priest: “Now I know that the Lord will do me good, seeing that I have a Levite as my priest” (Judges 17:13), understood? It is understood only if he was an actual Levite, not if he was from the tribe of Judah and named Levi. Rava bar Rav Ḥanan responded: Yes, it is understood. Micah understood the fact that a man whose name is Levi happened upon him as an auspicious sign.

The Gemara asks further: But is it so that his name was indeed Levi; but wasn’t Jonathan his name, as it is stated: “And Jonathan, the son of Gershom, the son of Manasseh, he and his sons were priests to the tribe of the Danites” (Judges 18:30)? Rava bar Rav Ḥanan said to him: And according to your reasoning, that his name was not Levi but he was from the tribe of Levi, there is also a difficulty from that same verse: But is it so that he was the son of Manasseh; but wasn’t he the son of Moses, as it is written: “The sons of Moses: Gershom and Eliezer” (I Chronicles 23:15)?

Rava bar Rav Ḥanan explains the verse: Rather, although he was the son of Moses, because he acted as Manasseh the king of Judah, who was notorious for idol worship, acted, the verse linked him to Manasseh by calling him “the son of Manasseh.” Here too, in the verse from which you seek to prove that one’s mother’s family is called one’s family, since he acted as Manasseh, who came from the tribe of Judah, acted, the verse linked him to Judah by stating that he was “of the family of Judah,” but he was, in fact, a Levite.

In connection with this, Rabbi Yoḥanan says in the name of Rabbi Shimon ben Yoḥai: From here it is learned that corruption is linked to one who is corrupt, as this man was linked to Manasseh and Judah despite having no familial connection to them. Rabbi Yosei bar Ḥanina says: That concept can be seen from here, in the matter of Adonijah, the son of David: “And he was also a very handsome man; and she gave birth to him after Absalom,” (I Kings 1:6) but Adonijah wasn’t the son of Haggith and Absalom was the son of Maachah, so why does the verse state: “And she gave birth to him after Absalom,” as if they were sons of the same mother? Rather, since Adonijah acted in a manner fit for Absalom, who also rebelled against the monarchy, the verse linked him to Absalom, referring to him as his full brother. Here too, with regard to Jonathan, since he acted as Manasseh acted, the verse linked him to Manasseh.

§ In connection with the story of Jonathan, son of Manasseh, the Gemara cites a related statement. Rabbi Elazar says: A person should always cleave to good people, meaning one should marry a woman from a good family, as this is beneficial for the offspring of that marriage. As in the case of Moses, who married a daughter of Yitro, who was a priest of idolatry, Jonathan, who was also a priest of idolatry, descended from him, while in the case of Aaron, who married the daughter of Amminadab, who was of distinguished lineage in the tribe of Judah, Pinehas descended from him.

The Gemara asks: And did Pinehas not also come from Yitro? But it is written: “And Elazar, Aaron’s son, took one of the daughters of Putiel as a wife; and she bore him Pinehas” (Exodus 6:25). What, is it not stating that Pinehas came from the family of Yitro, who was also called Putiel because he fattened [pittem] calves for idol worship? The Gemara answers: No, it is stating that he came from Joseph, who battled [shepitpet] with his desire by resisting the advances of Potiphar’s wife.

The Gemara asks: But didn’t the tribes denigrated him after he killed Zimri (see Numbers, chapter 25), and would say of him: Have you seen this son of Puti, the son of he whose mother’s father fattened calves for idol worship? Should such a man kill a prince of a tribe of Israel?