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Steinsaltz

what is the halakha? Are they liable for eating sacrificial meat while they were ritually impure? Do we say that since ritual impurity of the meat that is eaten was permitted, ritual impurity of the sacrificial portions offered on the altar was also permitted; or perhaps we say that what was permitted was permitted, and what was not permitted was not permitted?

Rava said: After all, from where was the halakha pertaining to eating the sacrificial portions in a state of ritual impurity included? It is derived from the halakha with regard to eating the meat in a state of ritual impurity, as it is written: “But the soul that eats of the flesh of the sacrifice of peace-offerings that pertain to the Lord, having his ritual impurity upon him, that soul shall be cut off from his people” (Leviticus 7:20); the apparently superfluous phrase “that pertain to the Lord” is there to include the sacrificial portions and establish that one is liable to receive karet for eating these portions in a state of ritual impurity.

Since this is the source, there is a limitation to the halakha pertaining to sacrificial portions: Anywhere that there is liability for eating the meat in a state of ritual impurity, there is liability for eating the sacrificial portions in a state of ritual impurity; conversely, anywhere that there is no liability for eating the meat in a state of ritual impurity, such as in the case of a Paschal lamb offered in a state of ritual impurity, there is no liability for eating the sacrificial portions in a state of ritual impurity.

Rabbi Zeira asked: With regard to the sacrificial portions of the Paschal lamb that the Jewish people sacrificed in Egypt on the first Passover, just before they left Egypt, where did they burn them? The Torah does not say that they constructed an altar for this purpose. Abaye said to him: What place is there for such a question? Who will tell us that they did not make them roasted and eat them? The Jewish people had not yet been commanded with regard to the halakhot of sacrifices; therefore, they presumably did not distinguish between meat and forbidden fats, and they roasted and consumed the entire animal (Arukh).

And furthermore, Rav Yosef taught that there were three parts of the door upon which the blood was sprinkled that took the place of three altars there in Egypt. The blood was applied upon the lintel and upon the two doorposts; and there was nothing else. Presumably, the Jewish people did not fulfill any mitzva not explicitly mentioned in the Torah, and since no other altar is mentioned, one can conclude that they did not offer the fats and other sacrificial portions on an altar.

MISHNA: What are the differences between the Paschal lamb that the Jewish people offered in Egypt and the Paschal lamb offered in all later generations? The Paschal lamb the Jewish people offered in Egypt had to be taken from the tenth of the month of Nisan and required the people to sprinkle its blood with a bundle of hyssop, unlike the Paschal lamb in all later years, and its blood was also sprinkled upon the lintel and the two doorposts, and it was eaten with haste; in addition, the Paschal lamb in Egypt was only on one night, whereas the Paschal lamb throughout the generations is observed for seven days.

The Gemara discusses the meaning of this difficult phrase, as obviously, the Paschal lamb is slaughtered on the fourteenth and eaten on the evening of the fifteenth. GEMARA: The Gemara asks: From where do we conclude that the requirements of the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt do not apply to later generations? As it is written: “Speak to all the congregation of Israel, saying: On the tenth day of this month they shall take to them every man a lamb, according to their fathers’ houses, a lamb for a household” (Exodus 12:3); and we derive from the superfluous word “this” that this Paschal lamb offered in Egypt had to be taken from the tenth of Nisan, and the Paschal lamb of later generations is not taken from the tenth of Nisan.

The Gemara expresses surprise: However, if that is so, when the verse states later in the same section: “And you shall keep it until the fourteenth day of this month” (Exodus 12:6), so too it should be inferred that this Paschal lamb in Egypt requires examination four days prior to its slaughter, and no other offering requires examination four days prior to its slaughter.

But wasn’t it taught in a baraita that ben Bag Bag says: From where do we know that the daily offering requires examination four days prior to its slaughter? It is stated with regard to the daily offering: “Command the children of Israel, and say to them: My food which is presented to Me for offerings made by fire, of a sweet flavor to Me, you shall safeguard it to sacrifice to Me in its due season” (Numbers 28:2), and it states there, with regard to the Paschal lamb: “And it shall be for you as a safeguard until the fourteenth day of this month” (Exodus 12:6). Just as in the verse there, the Paschal lamb requires examination four days prior to its slaughter, so too here, the daily offering requires examination four days prior to its slaughter. There is no inference from the phrase “this month” that the requirement of examining an offering four days before is limited to the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt.

The Gemara answers: It is different there, with regard to the requirement to examine the daily offering four days prior to its slaughter, as it is written: “You shall safeguard it.” This halakha is derived from a verbal analogy based on the word “safeguard,” which is stated in the context of both offerings.

Similarly, the Paschal lamb sacrificed in later generations also requires examination four days prior to slaughter, as it is written: “And it shall be when the Lord shall bring you into the land of the Canaanite, and the Hittite, and the Amorite, and the Hivite, and the Jebusite, which He swore to your fathers to give you, a land flowing with milk and honey, that you shall perform this service in this month” (Exodus 13:5). From here it is derived that all the services of this month for all later generations shall be like this, including examination of the animal four days prior to sacrifice. Despite the fact that the verse connects the Paschal lamb in later years to the Paschal lamb in Egypt, the requirement to take the animal on the tenth of Nisan applied only on the first Passover.

Rather, what does that phrase: “this month,” stated with regard to the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt, come to exclude? The Gemara answers that it comes to exclude the Paschal lamb of the second Pesaḥ, which is similar to it, as it is also limited to a one day celebration. The Paschal lamb of the second Pesaḥ does not require examination four days prior to its slaughter.

Once again the Gemara questions its assertion that the phrase “this month” stated in the context of the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt indicates that its halakhot are not relevant to other offerings. However, if that is so, with regard to that which is written: “And they shall eat the meat on that night” (Exodus 12:8), so too, should it be inferred that this Paschal lamb offered in Egypt was eaten at night and no other Paschal lamb offered in later generations must be eaten at night? The Gemara answers that the verse states: “You shall perform this service in this month” (Exodus 13:5), in order to teach that the halakhot of the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt apply to later generations as well.

The Gemara asks: Rather, if so, why do I need the word “this” stated with regard to the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt if all the halakhot relevant to that offering apply to the Paschal lambs of later generations? The Gemara answers that the phrase is needed for the derivations cited by Rabbi Elazar ben Azarya and Rabbi Akiva (see Berakhot 9a) with regard to the length of time during which the Paschal lamb may be eaten.

The Gemara asks: However, if that is so, with regard to that which is written in the context of the Paschal lamb offered in Egypt: “And no uncircumcised person shall eat from it” (Exodus 12:48), so too, should it be inferred that the expression “from it” limits the application of the verse and teaches that “from it,” the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt, he may not eat, but he may eat from the Paschal lamb sacrificed in later generations? The Gemara answers that the verse states: “You shall perform,” which teaches that the halakhot of the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt apply to later generations as well.

The Gemara asks: But if so, why do I need the expression “from it” stated here? The Gemara answers that it teaches that from it, the Paschal lamb, he may not eat, but he eats from the matza and bitter herbs. An uncircumcised person is obligated to eat matza and bitter herbs on Passover, just like any other Jew.

The Gemara continues to question: However, if that is so, when the verse states: “No stranger shall eat from it” (Exodus 12:43), so too, should it be inferred that it is only from it, the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt, that he may not eat, but he may eat from the Paschal lamb sacrificed in later generations? The Gemara answers that the verse states: “You shall perform,” which teaches that the halakhot of the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt apply to future generations as well. Consequently, anyone who was prohibited from eating the Paschal lamb in Egypt may not eat it in subsequent years either.

The Gemara asks: But if so, why do I need the qualifying phrase: “From it”? The Gemara answers: It is from it, eating the Paschal lamb, that apostasy disqualifies, as the term “stranger” in this context is understood to refer to a Jew whose conduct makes him estranged from God; but apostasy does not disqualify one from eating teruma. Therefore, a priest who has become an apostate may still consume teruma.

The Gemara continues: And it is necessary for the Torah to write the prohibition of an uncircumcised person, and it is necessary for the Torah to write a separate prohibition with regard to a stranger, as, if the Torah had written only about an uncircumcised person, one might have thought that only he is prohibited to eat from the Paschal lamb because the foreskin is repulsive, but a stranger who is not repulsive, say that he may eat from the Paschal lamb. Therefore, it is necessary to teach the case of a stranger. And if it would have taught us only the prohibition with regard to a stranger, one might have concluded that only he is prohibited from eating the Paschal lamb because his heart is not directed toward Heaven due to his apostasy, but with regard to an uncircumcised person, whose heart is directed toward Heaven, say that there is no prohibition for him to eat the Paschal lamb. Therefore, it is necessary to teach also the case of an uncircumcised person.

The Gemara continues to question its initial derivation: However, if that is so, when the verse pertaining to the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt states: “A sojourner and a hired servant shall not eat from it” (Exodus 12:45), so too, should it be derived that from it, the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt, he may not eat, but he may eat from the Paschal lamb sacrificed in later generations? The Gemara answers that the verse states: “And you shall perform,” which teaches that the halakhot of the Paschal lamb in later generations are the same as the halakhot that applied in Egypt. The Gemara asks: But if so, why do I need the qualifying term “from it”? The Gemara answers that it teaches that from it, the Paschal lamb, apostasy disqualifies one from partaking, but apostasy does not disqualify one from eating teruma.

The Gemara continues its line of questioning: However, if that is so, when the verse said: “When you have circumcised him, then shall he eat from it” (Exodus 12:44), so too, should it be inferred that from it, the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt, he may not eat unless he first circumcises his sons and slaves, but he may eat from the Paschal lamb sacrificed in later generations? The Gemara answers that the verse states: “You shall perform,” which teaches that this halakha applies to later generations as well. The Gemara asks: But if so, why do I need the qualifying term “from it”? The Gemara answers that this term teaches that from it, the Paschal lamb, the lack of circumcision of one’s male children and slaves prevents a father or master from eating until he ensures that all of the male members of his household have been circumcised, but the circumcision of one’s male children and slaves does not prevent him from eating teruma if he is himself eligible to eat it.

The Gemara asks further: However, if that is so, with regard to that which is written: “And they shall not break a bone in it” (Numbers 9:12), so too, should it be inferred that it is prohibited to break a bone only of it, the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt, but one may break a bone of a Paschal lamb sacrificed in later generations? The Gemara answers that the verse states: You shall perform, which applies the halakhot stated with regard to the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt to the Paschal lambs of later generations as well. The Gemara asks: But if so, why do I need the qualifying expression “in it”? The Gemara explains that this qualification teaches that only a bone in it, a fit Paschal lamb, may not be broken, but there is no prohibition to break the bone of an unfit Paschal lamb.

The Gemara asks further: However, if that is so, from that which is written: “Do not eat of it raw, nor boiled in water, but roasted in fire” (Exodus 12:9), should it be inferred that it is only of it, the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt, that you may not eat raw, but you may eat raw meat from the Paschal lamb of later generations? The Gemara answers that the verse states: “You shall perform,” which teaches that the prohibition applies to later generations as well. The Gemara asks: But if so, why do I need the qualifying expression “in it”? The Gemara answers that it is necessary for that which Rabba said that Rabbi Yitzḥak said, that this verse serves as the basis of a verbal analogy which teaches that an uncircumcised man may not eat tithes.

The Gemara returns to discuss the mishna, which stated that the Paschal lamb sacrificed in Egypt was eaten with haste but that Paschal lambs sacrificed in later years were not. From where do we derive this halakha? The Gemara answers that it is as the verse states: “You shall eat it in haste; it is the Lord’s Paschal lamb” (Exodus 12:11). The word “it” indicates a detail and teaches that “it” is eaten with haste, and no other Paschal lamb is eaten with haste.

The mishna stated that the Paschal lamb of later generations applies all seven days. The Gemara asks: On what does this stand? If we say that it refers to the Paschal lamb itself, is there a Paschal lamb all seven days? It is offered only on the fourteenth of Nisan.

Talmud - Bavli - The William Davidson digital edition of the Koren No=C3=A9 Talmud
with commentary by Rabbi Adin Steinsaltz Even-Israel (CC-BY-NC 4.0)
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